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Re: [idn] An ignorant question about TC<-> SC

To: "ben" <ben@cc-www.com>, <DougEwell2@cs.com>, <idn@ops.ietf.org>, "Martin Duerst" <duerst@w3.org>,=?utf-8?Q?Patrik_F=C3=A4ltstr=C3=B6m?= <paf@cisco.com>,=?utf-8?B?dHNlbmdsbUDoqIjntrLkuK3lv4Mu5Lit5aSnLnR3?= <tsenglm@cc.ncu.edu.tw>
Subject: Re: [idn] An ignorant question about TC<-> SC
From: "xiang deng" <deng@cnnic.net.cn>
Date: Mon, 29 Oct 2001 17:19:40 +0800
Cc: "John C Klensin" <klensin@jck.com>


On Sunday, October 28, 2001 1:09 PM, Martin Duerst wrote:

> Assume somebody registers SSSS as a domain with name servers,...
> and registers TTTT CNAME SSSS, why would that not guarantee that
> everybody looking for foo.SSSS and for foo.TTTT would get to
> the same machine(s)?

Yes, I give the other example:
IN NS SSSS.foo
SSSS IN A 1.1.1.1

IN NS TTTT.foo
TTTT IN A 1.1.1.1

How to config the 1.1.1.1 and its subdomain?

Deng xiang

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